In economics it is assumed that incentives by restrictions and preferences are caused. Since a change in the economic theory of preferences can not be explained by a change is in the behavior of individuals whenever possible a change in the restrictions reduced. The preferences, it is assumed, do not change themselves. In the formal theory preferences are viewed as a complete order on the set of all possible bundle of goods easier, often with additional conditions such as continuity or convexity, the arithmetic that. But the arranged after the period for which and when the set of all possible bundle of goods is, the order and look to the different preferences. It is obvious that the order of the amount of both the precise date and therefore the past, as well as the time horizon is planned in which it depends.
One example, consider the following three bundle of goods: a glass of milk, a glass of beer, a glass of water. With a short time horizon of one hour I would on a Saturday morning glass of milk to the glass prefer beer, the glass of water in between. Would I plan a longer time horizon of perhaps twelve hours, and I would absolutely have a beer in the evening, I would prefer the beer of the milk. In the evening, finally, after the tenth beer, the glass of water is probably at the top. It turns out that preferences do not in some way are stable. But how? An economist might say, perhaps, that in the individual consideration of the situations described above press their claims and any problems that individuals behave in the same situations in the same - this is the desired stability of preferences.
It seems, however, that a model that considers not only individual situations in isolation, but extends over a certain period of time, then demanded that it be this' inner life 'preferences' to encompass or at least demonstrated that it hardly affects the economic theory. Preferences change depending on changing the date and the time horizon, almost by chance and are thus in the aggregation probably again predictable and predictable? Or rather, is a sentence like "I prefer a glass of Fanta over a glass of Sprite" neither true nor false, but something in between? Or co-exist for an individual even several orders of preference? Or I'm wrong cares?
(Photo credit: Nature Neuroscience, September 2005)
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